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2014年全国高考英语试题及答案-大纲卷

2014年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（大纲卷）

英语

本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分，共150分，考试时间120分钟。考生务必将答案涂写在答题卡上，答在试卷上的无效。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第Ⅰ卷

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）

做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10称钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例：How much is the shirt?

A. ￡19.15.

B. ￡9.18.

C. ￡9.15. 答案是C。

1. What does the woman want to do?

A. Find a place.

B. Buy a map.

C. Get an address.

2. What will the man do for the woman?

A. Repair her car.

B. Give her a ride.

C. Pick up her aunt.

3. Who might Mr. Peterson be?

A. A new professor.

B. A department head.

C. A company director.

4. What does the man think of the book?

A. Quite difficult.

B. Very interesting.

C. Too simple.

5. What are the speakers talking about?

A. Weather.

B. Clothes

C. News.

第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。

6. Why is Harry unwilling to join woman?

A. He has a pain in his knee.

B. He wants to watch TV.

C. He is too lazy.

7. What will the woman probably do next?

A. Stay at home.

B. Take Harry to hospital.

C. Do some exercise.

听第7段材料，回答第8 、9题。

8. When will the man be home from work?

A. At 5:45.

B. At 6:15.

C. At 6:50.

9. Where will the speakers go?

A. The Green House Cinema.

B. The new State Cinema.

C. The UME Cinema.

听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。

10. How will the speakers go to New York?

A. By air.

B. By taxi.

C. By bus.

11. Why are the speakers making the trip?

A. For business.

B. For shopping.

C. For holiday.

12. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

A. Driver and passenger.

B. Husband and wife.

C. Fellow workers.

听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。

13. Where does this conversation probably take place?

A. In a restaurant.

B. In an office.

C. In a classroom.

14. What does John do now?

A. He’s a trainer.

B. He’s a tour guide.

C. He’s a college student.

15. How much can a new person earn for the first year?

A. ＄10,500.

B. ＄12,000.

C. ＄15,000.

16. How many people will the woman hire?

A. Four.

B. Three.

C. Two.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. How long has the speaker lived in a big city?

A. One year.

B. Ten years.

C. Eighteen years.

18. What is the speaker’s opinion on public transport?

A. It’s comfortable.

B. It’s time-saving.

C. It’s cheap.

19. What is good about living in a small town?

A. It’s safer.

B. It’s healthier.

C. It’s more convenient.

20. What kind of life does the speaker seem to like most?

A. Busy.

B. Colorful.

C. Quiet.

第二部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节单项填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）

从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该涂黑。例:It is generally considered unwise to give a child____ he or she wants. 答案是B。

A. however

B. whatever

C. whichever

D. whenever

21. ---I’m sorry for breaking the cup.

---Oh, I’ve got

A. forget it

B. my pleasure

C. help yourself

D. pardon me

22. Unless some extra money , the theatre will close.

A. was found

B. finds

C. is found

D. found

23. Today there are more airplanes more people than ever before in the skies.

A. carry

B. carrying

C. carried

D. to be carrying

24. Exactly the potato was introduced into Europe is uncertain, but it was probably around 1565.

A. whether

B. why

C. when

D. how

25. ---Who’s that the door?

--- is the milkman.

A. He

B. It

C. This

D. That

26. the nurses was a pay increase, they want reduced hours as well.

A. Not do only

B. Do not only

C. Only not do

D. Not only do

27. Raymond’s parents wanted him to have possible education.

A. good

B. better

C. best

D. the best

28. I think Mrs. Stark could be between 50 and 60 years of age.

A. anywhere

B. anybody

C. anyhow

D. anything

29. September 30 is the day which you must pay your bill.

A. by

B. for

C. with

D. in

30. Although you find bargains in London, it’s not generally a clean place to shop.

A. should

B. need

C. must

D. can

31. Caroline doesn’t have a gift for music, but she it with hard work.

A. goes back on

B. takes away from

C. makes up for

D. Catches up with

32. The reports went missing in 2012 and nobody them since.

A. sees

B. saw

C. has seen

D. had seen

33. me tomorrow and I’ll let you know the lab result.

A. Calling

B. Call

C. To call

D. Having called

34. Henry was away from home for quite a bit and saw his family.

A. frequently

B. seldom

C. always

D. usually

35. ---What did you do last weekend?

---Oh, nothing .

A. much

B. else

C. ever

D. yet

第二节完形填空（共20小题：每小题1.5分，满分30分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑

Joe Simpson and Simon Yates were the first people to climb the West Face of the Siula Grande in the Andes mountains. They reached the top 36 , but on their way back conditions were very 37 . Joe fell and broke his leg. They both knew that if Simon 38 alone, he would probably get back 39 . But Simon decided to risk his and try to lower Joe down the mountain on a rope(绳).

As they 41 down, the weather got worse. Then another 42 occurred. They couldn’t see or hear each other and 43 , Simon towered his friend over the edge of a precipice(峭壁). It was 44 for Joe to climb back for Simon had to pull him up. Joe’s 45 was pulling Simon slowly towards the precipice.

46 , after more than an hour in the dark and the icy cold, Simon had to 47 . In tears, he cut the rope. Joe 48 into a huge crevasse(裂缝) in the ice below. He had no food or water and he was in terrible pain. He couldn’t walk, but he 49 to get out of the crevasse and started to 50 towards their camp, nearly ten kilometers 51 .

Simon had 52 the camp at the foot of the mountain. He thought that Joe must be 53 , but he didn’t want to leave 54 . Three days later, in the middle of the night, he heard Joe’s voice. He couldn’t 55 it. Joe was there, a few meters from their tent, still alive.

36. A. hurriedly B. carefully C. successfully D. early

37. A. difficult B. similar C. special D. normal

38. A. climbed B. worked C. rested D. continued

39. A. unwillingly B. safely C. slowly D. regretfully

40. A. fortune B. time C. health D. life

41. A. lay B. settled C. went D. looked

42. A. damage B. storm C. change D. trouble

43. A. by mistake B. by chance C. by choice D. by luck

44. A. unnecessary B. practical C. important D. impossible

45. A. height B. weight C. strength D. equipment

46. A. Finally B. Patiently C. Surely D. Quickly

47. A. stand back B. take a rest C. make a decision D. hold on

48. A. jumped B. fell C. escaped D. backed

49. A. managed B. planned C. waited D. hoped

50. A. run B. skate C. move D. march

51. A. around B. away C. above D. along

52. A. headed for B. traveled to C. left for D. returned to

53. A. dead B. hurt C. weak D. late

54. A. secretly B. tiredly C. immediately D. anxiously

55. A. find B. believe C. make D. accept

第三部分阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

Arriving in Sydney on his own from India, my husband, Rashid, stayed in a hotel for a short time while looking for a house for me and our children.

He reported the case to the police and then sat there, lost and lonely in strange city, thinking of the terrible troubles of getting all the paperwork organised again from a distant country while trying to settle down in a new one.

Late in the evening, the phone rang. It was a stranger. He w as trying to pronounce my husband’s name and was asking him a lot of questions. Then he said they had found a pile of papers in their trash can(垃圾桶)that had been left out on the footpath.

My husband rushed to their home to find a kind family holding all his papers and documents(文件). Their young daughter had gone to the trash can and found a pile of unfamiliar papers. Her parents had carefully sorted them out, although they had found mainly foreign addresses on most of the documents. At last they had seen a half-written letter in the pile in which my husband had given his new telephone number to a friend.

That family not only restored the important documents to us that day but also restored our faith and trust in people. We still remember their kindness and often send a warm wish their way.

56.What did Rashid plan to do after his arrival in Sydney?

A. Go shopping

B. Find a house

C. Join his family

D. Take a vocation

57.The girl’s parents got Rashid’s phone number from_______.

A. a friend of his family

B. a Sydney policeman

C. a letter in his papers

D. a stranger in Sydney

58.What does the underlined word ―restored‖ in the last paragraph mean?

A. Showed

B. Gave back

C. Delivered

D. Sent out

59.Which of the following can be the best title for the text?

A. From India to Australia.

B. Living in a New Country.

C. Turning Trash to Treasure.

D. In Search of New Friends.

Since the first Earth Day in 1970,American have gotten a lo t ―greenter‖ toward the environment(环境). ―We didn’t know at that time there even was an environment, let alone that there was a problem with it,‖ says Bruce Anderson, president of Earth Day USA.

But what began as nothing important in public affairs has grown into a social movement. Business people, political leaders, university professors, and especially millions of grass-roots Americans are taking part in the movement. ―The understanding has increased many, many times,‖ says Gaylord Nelson, the former governor from Wisconsin, who thought up the first Earth Day.

According to US government reports, emissions (排放)from cars and trucks have dropped from 10.3 million tons a year to 5.5 tons .The number of cities producing CO beyond the standard has been reduced from 40 to 9. Although serious problems still remain and need to be dealt with, the world is a safer and healthier place. A kind of ―Green thinking‖ has become part of practices .

Great improvement has been achieved. In 1988 there were only 600 recycling(回收利用) programs; today in 1995 there are about 6,600. Advanced lights, motors, and building designs have helped save a lot of energy and therefore prevented pollution .

Twenty–five years ago, there were hardly any education programs for environment. Today, it’s hard to find a public school, university, or law school that does not have such a kind of program.‖ Until we do that, nothing else will change!‖ says Bruce Anderson .

60. According to Anderson, before 1970, Americans had little idea about ___.

A. the social movement

B. recycling techniques

C. environmental problems

D. the importance of Earth Day

61. Where does the support for environmental protection mainly come from?

A. The grass–roots level

B. The business circle

C. Government officials

D. University professors

62. What have Americans achieved in environmental protection?

A. They have cut car emissions to the lowest.

B. They have settled their environmental problems.

C. They have lowered their CO levels in forty cities.

D. They have reduced pollution through effective measures.

63. What is especially important for environmental protection according to the last paragraph ?

A. Education.

B. Planning.

C. Green living.

D. CO reduction.

One of the latest trend(趋势) in American Childcare is Chinese au pairs. Au Pair in Stamford, Conn., for example, has got increasing numbers of request for Chinese au pairs from zero to around 4,000 since 2004. And that’s true all across the country.

―I thought it would be useful for him to learn Chinese at an early age.‖ Joseph Stocke, the managing director of a company, says of his 2-year-old so n. ―I would at least like to give him the chance to use the language in the future.‖ After only six months of being cared by 25-year-old woman from China, the boy

can already understand basic Chinese daily expressions, his dad says.

Li Drake, a Chinese native raising two children in Minnesota with an American husband, had another reason for looking for an au pair from China: She didn’t want her children to miss out on their roots.‖ Because I am Chinese, my husband and I wanted the children to keep exposed to(接触) the language and culture(文化),‖ she says.

―Staying with a native speaker is better for children than simply sitting in a classroom,‖ says Suzanne Flynn, a professor in language education of c hildren.‖ But parents must understand that just one year with au pair is unlikely to produce wonders. Complete mastery demands continued learning until the age of 10 or 12.‖

The popularity if au pairs from china has been strengthened by the increasing numbers of American parents who want their children who want their children to learn Chinese. It is expected that American demand for au pairs will continue to rise in the next few years.

64.What does that term ‖au pair‖ in the text mean?

A. A mother raising her children on her own

B. A young foreign woman taking care of children.

C. A professor in language education of children

D. A child learning a foreign language at home

65. Li Drake has her children study Chinese because she wants them ______.

A. to live in China some day

B. to speak the language at home

C. to catch up wit other children

D. to learn about the Chinese culture

66. How can children learn a foreign language best according to Flynn?

A. From their parents.

B. By attending classes

C. From a native speaker.

D. By starting at an early age.

66. What can we infer from the text?

A. Learning Chinese is becoming popular in America.

B. Educated women do better in looking after children.

C. Chinese au pairs need to improve their English Skills.

D. Children can learn a foreign language well in six months.

Metro Pocket Guide

Metrorail(地铁)

Each passenger needs a farecard to enter and go out. Up to two children under ago five may travel free with a paying customer.

Farecard machine are in every station. Bring small bills because there are no change machines in the station and farecard machine only provide up to $ 5 in change.

Get one of unlimited Metrorail rides with a One Day Pass. Buy it from a farecard machine in Metro stations. Use it after 9:30 a.m. until closing on weekdays, and all day on weekends and holidays.

Hours of Service

Open: 5 a.m. Mon.-Fri. 7a.m. Sat.-Sun.

Close: midnight Sun.—Thur. 3a.m. Fri.-Sat. nights

Last train time vary. To avoid(避免) missing the last train, please check the last train time posted in the station.

Metrobus

When paying with exact change, the fare is $ 1.35. When paying with a smarTrip, the fare is $1.25 Fares for the Senior /disabled customers

Senior citizens 65 and older and disabled customers may ride for half the regular fare. On Metrorail and Metrobus, use a senior/disabled farecard or SmarTrip card. For more information about buying senior/disabled farecards, SmarTripR cards and passes, please visit https://www.wendangku.net/doc/5b15528608.html, or call 202-637-7000 and 202-637-8000.

Senior citizens and disabled customers can get free guide on how to use proper Metrobus and Metrorail services by calling 202-962-1100.

Travel tips

·Avoid riding during weekday rush periods –before 9:30 a.m. and between 4 and 6 p.m.

·If you lose something on a bus or train or in a station, please call Lost & Found at 202-962-1195.

68. what should you know about farecard machine?

A. They start selling tickets at 9:30 a.m.

B. They are connected to change machines.

C. They offer special service to the elderly.

D. They make change for no more than $5.

69. At what time does Metrorail stop service on Saturday?

A. At midnight

B. at 3 a.m.

C. at 5 a.m.

D. at 7 p.m.

70. What is good about a SmarTrip card?

A. It is convenient for old people.

B. It saves money for its users.

C. It can be bought at any time.

D. it is sold on the Internet..

71. Which number should you call if you lose something on the Metro?

A. 202-962-1195

B.202-962-1100

C.202-673-7000

D.202-673-8000

Wthen hasn’t dreamed of being a cool secret agent(特工)? The wonderful fighting abilities and the world-saving adventures are much more colourful than most people’s everyday lives. Well, Cody Banks is just like any other boy, except that he is just dreaming. He has a big secret his friends never know about. He was trained to be a spy(间谍) by a special CIA programme, which was made to look like a summer camp. He learned high-speed driving, hand-to-hand fighting and the use of high-tech tools.

After proving he could become a young hero by saving a baby from a runaway car, Banks gets his first real task. He must make friends with a popular girl at school, Natalie Connors. Then, he must spy on her father, a scientist who has developed a dangerous technology(技术). Banks must stop a group of bad people from forcing Natalie’s father into using the technology to endanger the world.

The CIA may have taught him first-class self-defence moves, but they didn’t show him how to talk to girls. Banks has zero ability when it comes to dealing with girls. How can he get around his problem and get an invitation to the girl’s upcoming birthday party? Will he finally become Natalie’s boyfriend and find out whatever he can about her father’s work?

Agent Cody Banks has everything that young people are interesting in; big exposions, breath-taking performances and funny girl-dating experiences. It was listed No.2 in the American box office last week.

―This story is interesting and fun for the whole family to enjoy and especially cool for young boys.‖Said Paul Perkins, a film reviewer in the US.

72. What is Banks’ first real task?

A. To test a high-tech tool.

B. To save a baby from a car.

C. To study a new technology.

D. To watch

a scientist secretly.

73. Banks wanted to go to Natalie’s birthday party to.

A. meet her father

B. know more people

C. make friends with her

D. steal some information

74. What is considered as a great danger in the text?

A. The technology developed by Natalie’s father.

B. As explosion set off by some bad people.

C. The CIA’s training of boys for its tasks.

D. Secret agents’ spying on scientists.

75. What is the purpose of the text?

A. Making known the work of the CIA.

B. Telling the story about a cool boy.

C. Showing the dark side of science.

D. Introducing a new film

第Ⅱ卷

第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

此题要求改正所给短文中的错误。对标有题号的每一行作出判断：如无错误，在该行右边横线上画一个勾（√）；如有错误（每行只有一个错误），则按下列情况改正：

此行多一个词：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉，在该行右边横线上写出该词，并也用斜线划掉。

此行缺一个词：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），在该行右边横线上写出该加的词。

此行错一个词：在错的词下划一横线，在该行右边横线上写出改正后的词。

注意：原行没有错的不要改。

All of us need friendship. The understanding 76.

between two friends mean both of them have similar 77.

ideas and trusting each other. Otherwise, it is 78.

impossible for him to help each otherand to make 79.

their friendship to last long. As an old saying goes, 80.

―A friend in need is a friend indeed.‖ So really friendship 81.

should able to stand all sorts of tests. And is is 82.

wise to have as many good friends that we can. 83.

The more friends we have, the more we can learn for 84.

one another, but the more pleasure we can share together. 85.

第二节书面表达（满分25分）

一家英语报社向中学生征文，主题是“十年后的我”。请根据下列要求和你的畅象完成短文。

1.家庭

2.工作

3.业余生活

注意:1.词数100左右；

2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；

3.开头语已为你写好。

I often imagine what my life will be like in the future.

2014年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（大纲卷）答案

英语

单项选择：

1-5 ABCBA 6-10BCACA 11-15ACBCA 16-20CBCAB

21-25ACBCB 26-30DDAAD 31-35CCBBA

36-40CADBD 41-45CDADB 46-50ACBAC 51-55BDACB

56-59BCBC 60-63CADA 64-67BDCA 68-71DBBA 72-75DCAD

短文改错：

76. 正确77. mean—means 78. trusting—trust 79. him—them 80. to去掉81. really—real

82. able前加be 83. that—as 84. for—from 85. but—and

书面表达：

I often imagine what my life will be like in the future. I think my life will be very different in ten years. I will be twenty-eight years old by then. I will have my own family, probably with a lovely child. I hope I will work in a computer company as a program designer. I will enjoy my work and get along well with my colleagues. I will do a good job in whatever I do. In my free time, I will continue to take regular exercise, such as swimming, running and various ball games. On my holidays, I will travel around the world. In a word, my life will be much richer and more colorful.

2014年高考英语试卷(新课标I)word校对版

2014年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新课标I) 英语第一部分听力（略）第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分60分）第一节（共15小题；每小题3分，满分45分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A The Cambridge Science Festival Curiosity Challenge Dare to Take the Curiosity Challenge! The Cambridge Science Festival (CSF) is pleased to inform you of the sixth annual Curiosity Challenge. The challenge invites, even dares school students between the ages of 5 and 14 to create artwork or a piece of writing that shows their curiosity and how it inspires them to explore their world. Students are being dared to draw a picture, write an article, take a photo or write a poem that shows what they are curious about. To enter the challenge, all artwork or pieces of writing should be sent to the Cambridge Science Festival, MIT Museum, 265 Mass Avenue, Cambridge 02139 by Friday, February 8th. Students who enter the Curiosity Challenge and are selected as winners will be honored at a special ceremony during the CSF on Sunday, April 21st. Guest speakers will also present prizes to the students. Winning entries will be published in a book. Student entries will be exhibited and prizes will be given. Families of those who take part will be included in the celebration and brunch will be served. Between March 10th and March 15th, each winner will be given the specifics of the closing ceremony and the Curiosity Challenge celebration. The program guidelines and other related information are available at: https://www.wendangku.net/doc/5b15528608.html,. 21. Who can take part in the Curiosity Challenge? A. School students. B. Cambridge locals. C. CSF winners. D. MIT artists. 22. When will the prize-giving ceremony be held? A. On February 8th. B. On March 10th. C. On April 21st. D.On March 15th. 23. What type of writing is this text? A. An exhibition guide. B. An art show review. C. An announcement. D. An official report. B Passenger pigeons(旅鸽) once flew over much of the United States in unbelievable numbers. Written accounts from the 18th and 19th centuries described 1

2014年全国大纲卷高考英语试题真题含答案

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