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2019届高三第三次模拟考试卷英语(一)(附答案)

2019届高三第三次模拟测试卷

英语（一）

注意事项：

1、答题前，先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试题卷和答题卡上，并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。

2、选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。

3、非选择题的作答：用签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。

4、考试结束后，请将本试题卷和答题卡一并上交。第一部分听力（略）

第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A 、B 、C 和D ）中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

More then great drinks, great rewards

Enjoy all the benefits and more with your membership to our Loyalty Program! Whenever you pay with your membership account, you’ll earn a Star. Collect more Stars, earn more rewards. Three ways to join us

Buy a Starbucks Card handy to create an account.

Track your Stars online or through the mobile app, and we’ll send an email when you’ve ea rned a reward. You can also join from your phone. Download the Starbucks App.

One of the most exciting benefits of being member is using our mobile app to:

Pay for purchases; view your Stars and rewards; access iTunes; Pick of the Week, see current offers. Or you can join with specially marked coffee purchased at the grocery store. Enter your Starcode(limit 2 per day).

Look for the Starcode symbol on specially marked Starbucks? products where you buy groceries.

Three levels with increasingly greater rewards

To reach each level in our Loyalty Program, you need to collect more Stars.(Remember, to earn a Star you must

pay with a registered Starbucks Card.)

Welcome level

To earn your first rewards, just register a Starbucks Card.

Birthday drink or treat on us; birthday coupon(优惠券) for 15% off a purchase at https://www.wendangku.net/doc/8512886575.html,. Green level

Collect 5 Stars within 12 months and you’ll be in the Gree n level. ●What is included in the Welcome level plus :

◆Free in-store refills(续杯) on hot or iced brewed coffee or tea Gold level

Collect 20 Stars within 12 months and you’re at the Gold level. ●What is included in the Green level plus :

◆A free food or drink item after another 12 Stars earned ◆Personalized Gold Card

21. Which of the following is a way you can apply for membership? A. To enter a Starcode from specially marked Starbucks products. B. To buy a Starbucks Card over the phone.

C. To update the Starbucks App from the official website.

D. To buy a drink at a Starbucks on weekends. 22. With the Starbucks App, you can . A. change the prices B. earn a Star C. pay for rewards

D. view current offers

23. With a Starbucks Card of Green level, you will get . A. a free cake

B. personalized Green Card

C. free in-store refills

D. all purchases 15% off

On a flight from Dallas, Texas, to Cincinnati, Ohio, to visit a friend in 2008, event planner Paige Chenault daydreamed about the grand birthday parties she’d throw for her daughter one day.(Paige was five months pregnant at the time.) Then, flipping through a magazine, she saw a photo of an impoverished Haitian boy, skinny. “I thought, this kid has nothing,” Paige says.

The image stayed with her, and she resolved to do something to help. “I decided I would use my talents to throw

班级姓名准考证号考场号座位号

birthday parties for homel ess kids,” Paige says. For the next four years, Paige and her husband, Colin, took time out from parenthood to visit shelters to determine how best to pull off the parties.

Finally, in January 2012, Paige launched the Birthday Party Project, a nonprofit organization, and recruited friends and family to help decorate Dallas’s 75-occupant Family Gateway Shelter with balloons and streamers, celebrating the birthdays of 11 boys and girls, with 60 more homeless kids in attendance. “That first party was better th an I could have ever imagined,” says Paige.

Now Paige and her staff of three paid employees work with regional volunteers to plan monthly themed parties at 15 shelters across the country, some of which house abused or abandoned kids. Each child celebrating a birthday that month gets a $30 gift, a decorative place mat, and an individual cake or cupcake.

One of Paige’s favorite parts of each party is when the kids make a wish and blow out the candles. “They rarely get a chance to dream big,” says Paige.

Her d aughter, Lizzie, now seven, often helps out at the parties. Paige says, “The one thing I’ve always wanted is for my kid to be generous.”

24. What was it that made Paige want to help the homeless children?

A. A flight from Dallas to Ohio.

B. Her daugh ter’s birthday.

C. The photo of a Haitian boy.

D. Her talent for throwing parties.

25. What does the underlined word “impoverished” mean?

A. adorable

B. poor

C. talented

D. dead

26. What can be learnt from the passage?

A. A total of 75 full-time workers are employed by Paige at present.

B. After unsuccessful attempts, Paige finally threw a wonderful party for the homeless kids.

C. Kids can spend $30 to celebrate their birthday.

D. Paige commits herself to the cause of helping the homeless kids.

27. What kind of person do you think Paige is?

A. Caring and sensitive.

B. Competent and loyal.

C. Kind and perseverant.

D. Responsible and disciplined.

Finland is the happiest place on Earth, according to the 2018 World Happiness Report of 156 nations.

The report, released Wednesday by the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Solutions Network, ranks the countries of the world based on six different categories of well-being: income, freedom, trust, life expectancy, generosity and social support. This year’s report also pays special attention to the happiness of each country’s immigrants.

The U.S. dropped four spots from 2017 and landed in 18th place, and last year’s winner, Norway, came in second place followed by Denmark, Iceland and Switzerland.

“The top five countries all have almost equally high values for the six factors found to support happiness, and four of these countries Denmark, Switzerland, Norway and now Finland have been in first place in the six World Happiness Report rankings since the first report in 2012,” co-editor John Helliwell told CNN. “In a division with such excellent teams, changes in the top spot are to be expected.”

Rounding out the top 10 happiest countries was Canada in sixth place, then New Zealand, Sweden and Australia. The order of the top 10 nations changed from the 2017 list but the countries did not, according to the report. They were also 10 of the 11 top spots in the immigrant happiness category(including Mexico 24th overall, but 10th in immigration).

“The most striking finding of the report is the remarkable consistency between the happiness of immigrants and the l ocally born,” Helliwell said in a statement. “Although immigrants come from countries with very different levels of happiness, their reported life evaluations resemble those of other residents in their new countries. Those who move to happier countries gain, while those who move to less happy countries lose.”

Other major world powers placed in significantly low spots on the list. Germany came in 15th, the UK was 19th followed by Japan in 54th place, Russia in 59th and China in 86th.

The report, based on surveys completed by citizen volunteers, came just under a week before World Happiness Day on March 20, when the UN declared t o recognize “the relevance of happiness and well-being as universal goals and aspirations in the lives of human beings around the world and the importance of their recognition in public policy objectives”.

28. The US ranked ______ in 2017.

A. 14

B. 10

C. 18

D. 22

29. What is the most significant finding of the report?

A. That immigrants are different from residents in the country.

B. That immigrants come from countries with different levels of happiness.

C. That immigrants become happy when they leave the country.

D. That immigrants and locals feel the similar level of happiness.

30. What can be inferred from the last paragraph?

A. Happiness is no less important than any other aspect in life.

B. People’s happiness and well-being should be considered when it comes to policy-making.

C. The happiness report came under a week before World Happiness Day.

D. What the UN declared was beneficial to all human beings.

31. What is the best title of the passage?

A. World Happiness Day

B. Happiness forever pursuit

C. What’s your happiness index(指数)?

D. The 2018 World Happiness Report

I have happy memories of trips to Europe, but my trip to Romania(罗马尼亚) was unique. When I was there as recalled, it was like being in a “Ja m es Bond” mov ie. My husband was born there, but his family sent him to study in Italy. Before he left, his mother told him, “As long as I write in pencil, don’t come back. When I write to you in pen, it’s safe to return.” But she never wrote in pen.

My husband lived a poor life in Italy. He applied to go to America, but there was a limit in number and he was rejected. He was accepted by Canada, though, and from Calgary he jumped onto a train to San Francisco. There he stayed illegally. He became a US citizen when we got married. By then he was a charming European with a Romanian accent and the manners of a prince.

With seven years’ experience in America, a US passport, and two children later, he felt it was safe to visit Romania. He hadn’t seen his mother, two sisters, a nd two brothers since he was sixteen. We flew to Munich, Germany; picked up the German-made car we had purchased in the States; and drove to Romania via Austria and Hungary. When we reached Bucharest, the capital city of Romania, his family was waiting out side his sister’s house to greet us. After a long time of hugging, kissing, and crying, his family also hugged me, the American wife with two young children. They had great interest in me. Few Americans visited Romania at that time, and most Romanians had little chance to travel. I had brought an English-Romanian dictionary with me and managed to communicate, using only nouns, with no verbs. My Romanian improved, and the family’s stock of English words increased, but mostly I spoke in broken, New York-accented Romanian. The sisters loved their gifts of skirts and purses, the brothers loved the radios, and the children loved the candy. We made side trips to the Black Sea and enjoyed sightseeing in beautiful mountains. Dining at outdoor cafes to the music of violins was fantastic with fancy flavor, but nothing was as special as family dinners.

Romania didn’t have many dry cleaners. Most homes had old-fashioned washing machines but no dryers, and it was a hot summer. My husband’s relatives didn’t want to risk di rtying their clothes. Their solution was as simple as it was shocking: the women only wore their bras(胸罩) and slips (衬裙) at dinner table. The men were eating without shirts. They all had jobs, so time was precious. Having dinner without proper clothes was a small inconvenience compared with the effort of washing clothes—at least in my husband’s home, perhaps a ll across Romania. I, of course, having just met them, ate fully clothed. I washed my clothes by hand and hung them outdoors to dry.

On the last night of our three-week stay, we had a large family dinner. I was tired of washing my clothes. So I pulled my dress over my head and placed it on the chair behind me. All men and women applauded for my action. Even with my poor Romanian, I understood that they were saying, “She’s part of our family now.”

My children were 4 and 5 at the time, but they still have memories of that trip. They know how to say “Good morning” and “There are apricots(杏子) on the tree”. I can still say, “Do you speak Romanian?”and “I swi m in the Black Sea.” But most of all, I remember sitting at a long dining-room table in my bra, enjoying meatballs with fresh garlic .

32. From Para. 1, we can infer that ________.

A. the mother didn’t want to see her son

B. a trip to Europe would be dangerous

C. the mother didn’t like to write in pen

D. Romania might be unsafe at that time

33. Which of the following statements about the writer’s trip in Romania is true?

A. The couple bought a new German-made car after they arrived in German.

B. The writer had little interest in the relatives.

C. The writer used a new language with effort.

D. The family enjoyed swimming in the black sea best.

34. What made the writer feel special about the family dinner in Romania?

A. The way people dressed.

B. The way people spoke.

C. The fantastic violin music.

D. The fancy food flavor.

35. The writer shared her story to say ________.

A. “one needs to sacrifice to find true love”

B. “east and west, home is the best”

C. “when in Rome do as the Romans do”

D. “marry a dog and follow the dog forever”

第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

The only thing better than a vacation is a well-planned vacation with friends. With careful preparation and good communication, you can ensure that your group will stay enthusiastic through the whole trip. 36 Choose friends you get along well with. You’ll be spending a lot of time with your travel companions, so think of people who have similar general travel habits and are flexible and relaxed. 37 Also consider whether a friend is an early riser or prefers to go to sleep late, and how high-maintenance they tend to be.

38 Ask your friends to be open about how much you’re each willing to pay for the trip, between travel, accommodation, food and entertainment costs. You’ll plan your travel schedule around these loose budget constraints(限制条件).

Plan transportation

Buy plane tickets early to avoid higher prices. Use public transportation if your group is small enough to keep together. Consid er renting a car if you’re traveling with small children or a larger group.

Choose a destination

39 Since you’re traveling farther, it’s best to go with a group that’s small and easy to keep together, no more than three or four people. If you know your friends would rather lounge by the beach than go walking all over a city, a trip to a tropical destination might be the best choice.

Decide on daytime and nighttime activities

Research popular attractions in your destination and share them with your group. 40 This will allow everyone’s voice to be heard and ensures that the planners don’t have to make all the hard decisions.

Now, it’s time to start getting ready to plan the trip.

A. Ask everyone to tell the planners one or two things they definitely want to do.

B. If you enjoy trips with lots of walking or hiking, consider whether your friends have the similar hobbies.

C. Choose a road trip for a small group that gets along well.

D. Discuss a budget early on.

E. It’s fine to bring bigger luggage, but they’ll have to carry all their own bags.

F. Choose your friends, destination and activities wisely and your group will enjoy a fun and memorable holiday.

G. If you want to experience a new culture, try booking a trip to a foreign country.

第三部分语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

Once a couple lived in a village and loved their baby son very much. “We must have a pet,” the farmer said one day. “When our son grows up, he will need a 41 .” His wife liked the idea.

One evening, the farmer brought back a tiny mongoose(猫鼬). In several 42 the mongoose had grown to its full size 43 the baby was still in the cradle, 44 and crying alternately(交替地).

One day, the wife fed the baby and 45 him to sleep in his little cradle. Picking up the basket, she said to her husband, “I’m off to the 46 . The baby is sleeping. Keep an eye on him. 47 , I don’t like to leave him alone with the mongoose.”

“Don’t worry”, said the farmer. “It is a 48 animal and as sweet as our baby.”

The wife went away, and the farmer 49 to take a look at his fields. He 50 some friends on the way back and chatted for a while.

When the wife came back home with a 51 of groceries, she saw the mongoose sitting outside. On seeing her it ran to 52 her. She took one look at the mongoose and 53 . “Blood!” she cried. The face and paws of the mongoose were with blood.

“You wicked animal have killed my baby!” she screa med hysterically(歇斯底里). She was blind with 54 and with all her strength 55 t he heavy basket on the animal and ran inside to the baby’s cradle.

The baby was fast 56 . But on the floor lay a black snake 57 . In a flash she 58 what had happened. She ran out looking for the mongoose. “What have I done?” she cried touching the mongoose, who lay 59 , unaware of her sobbing, and 60 long at the dead mongoose.

41. A. instructor B. companion C. adviser D. conductor

42. A. months B. days C. years D. weeks

43. A. as B. however C. while D. although

44 A. playing B. singing C. drinking D. sleeping

45. A. rolled B. pulled C. rocked D. dragged

46. A. factory B. field C. market D. street

47. A. Consequently B. Frankly C. Generally D. Basically

48. A. friendly B. flexible C. responsible D. relaxing

49. A. decided B. forced C. managed D. encouraged

50. A. broke into B. hanged out with C. got away with D. ran into

51. A. bagful B. basketful C. boxful D. bottleful

52. A. cheer B. welcome C. hug D. kiss

53. A. explained B. checked C. implied D. screamed

54. A. fear B. worry C. pain D. anger

55. A. picked up B. put aside C. brought down D. pulled down

56. A. dead B. asleep C. awake D. alive

57. A. bleeding B. dancing C. shaking D. crawling

58. A. wondered B. admitted C. realized D. denied

59. A. quiet B. peaceful C. silently D. motionless

60. A. reflected B. stared C. recalled D. observed

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在在空白处填入适当的内容（不多于3个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。

Produced by China Central Television(CCTV) and the Ministry of Education(MOE), “First Class for New Semester” has become61 mandatory viewing activity for parents and students on the first day of the fall semester. But on Saturday(Sept. 1 ), millions of parents 62 (watch) the show disapproved of the “endless” ads delaying the show 63 12 minutes.

This August, MOE instructed local governments and school s to inform every child and their parents to “watch the show together”. 64 , parents who stayed home for the 65 (year) tradition disapproved of a range of content

from Saturday’s show. Online, many of 66 argued that the show’s 67 (delay) transmission broke their children’s concept of 68 (punctual), and also criticized the non-commercial TV show for surrendering to

commercial advertisements. The majority of the ads were also promoting extracurricular education institutions , 69 have been condemned for putting extra academic pressure on students. China’s state broadcaster has publicly apologized, “We have broadcast too many ads 70 ‘First Class’ and that has prevented the parents and students from watching it on time.”

第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1、每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；

2、只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。

Last weekend, I went to visit my English teacher, who was already in his fifty. He gives me a lot of help when I was a junior middle school student. Delighting to see me, he asked my senior middle school life. Then he advised me to make fully preparations for the coming entrance examination. It was so a pleasure to see him again that I didn’t notice it was pretty later. I had to say goodbye to each other.

He is not only a good teacher but my close friend. Wherever I will go, I will always treasure a time that I spent with my teacher.

第二节书面表达（满分25分）

假定你是李华，你的美国朋友Peter想提高中文水平，进一步了解中国文化。请给他写一封信，推荐学习资源（resource）。内容包括：

1、学习资源：报纸、杂志及其他途径；

2、推荐理由；

3、表达祝愿。

注意：1、词数100左右；

2、可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；

3、开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。

Dear Peter, _________________________________________________________________________

Yours,

Li Hua

2019届高三第三次模拟测试卷

英语（一）答案

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）（略）

第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题：每小题2分，满分30分）

21-23 ADC 24-27 CBDC 28-31 ADBD 32-35 DCAC

第二节（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分10 分）

36.F 37. B 38. D 39. G 40. A

第三部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）

41.B 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. C 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. D 51.B 52. B 53. D 54. D 55. C 56. B 57. A 58. C 59. D 60. B 第二节语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

61. a 62. watching 63. by或for 64. However 65. yearly

66. them 67. delayed 68. punctuality 69. which 70. before

第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

1.第一句，fifty改为fifties。

2.第二句，gives改为gave。

3.第三句，Delighting改为Delighted。

4.第三句，在asked后加上about。

5.第四句，fully改为full。

6.第五句，so改为such。

7.第五句，later改为late。

8.第六句，I改为We。

9.第八句，删去will。

10.第八句，a改为the。第二节书面表达（满分25分）

Dear Peter,

I am glad to hear that you are eager to improve your Chinese and know more about Chinese culture. It’s my pleasure to recommend some resources to you.

Reading some popular newspapers and magazines, such as Southern Weekly, is the first choice, from which you can get lots of information about Chinese customs. Besides, there are other ways to experience the Chinese language and culture on the Internet, on TV or with some apps. The interesting news and stories in these resources are so amazing that you will never feel bored. I am sure you can benefit a lot from them.

I sincerely hope that you can make great progress in learning Chinese and have a better understanding of Chinese culture.

Yours,

Li Hua

2019届高三英语12月调研考试试题

2018～2019学年度第一学期高三12月份调研卷英语考试时间120分钟，满分150分。仅在答题卷上作答。第一部分听力（共20题，每小题1.5分，共30分）第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的指定位置处。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. When will the meeting begin? A. At 10:30. B. At 10:50. C. At 10:45. 2. What does the woman mean? A. The homework can’t be due in two days. B. She hasn’t finished her homework yet. C. She doesn’t expect it to come so soon. 3. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. On the street. B. At a hotel. C. At a shop. 4. What does the woman suggest? A. Cooking at home. B. Eating out at McDonald’s. C. Taking McDonald’s home. 5. What is the woman’s attitude? A. She agrees with the man. B. She doesn’t ag ree with the man. C. She doesn’t know what to do. 第二节(共15小题，每小题l．5分，满分22．5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在答题卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后．各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时问。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6至8题。

2015上海高考英语试卷+答案

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