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湖南省雅礼中学2021届高三11月考试——英语

湖南省雅礼中学2021届高三11月考试——英语
湖南省雅礼中学2021届高三11月考试——英语

湖南省雅礼中学2021届高三11月考试

英语试卷

注意事项:

1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2.作答时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。

3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)

做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?

A. £19.15.

B. £9.18.

C. £9.15.

答案是C。

1. How long has the man waited for the woman?

A. 5 minutes.

B. 15 minutes.

C. 20 minutes.

2. What will the woman probably do next?

A. Park the car.

B. Turn back.

C. Turn left.

3. What does the woman mean?

A. Their kids will be a great help.

B. They will work harder than now.

C. She hardly has time to clean the house.

4. How will the man probably go downtown?

A. By bus.

B. By taxi.

C. By subway.

5. What is the man offering to do for the woman?

A. Carry her suitcases.

B. Help her to check in.

C. Take her to her room.

第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

6. When does the conversation probably take place?

A. At night.

B. In the afternoon.

C. In the morning.

7. What is the woman probably doing?

A. Listening to the radio.

B. Writing some reports.

C. Watching TV.

听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。

8. What does the woman ask the man for?

A. His full name.

B. His child’s passport.

C. His child’s last name.

9. What does the man ask to bring to the gate?

A. A blue backpack.

B. A baby carriage.

C. Two bags for his daughter.

10. What is the relationship between the speakers?

A. Guide and tourist.

B. Driver and passenger.

C. Airport employee and passenger.

听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。

11. How has the woman been trying to lose weight?

A. By eating less.

B. By taking some medicine.

C. By eating more healthy food.

12. What do we know about the woman?

A. She is really wealthy.

B. She wants to find a new job.

C. She prefers hamburgers to hot dogs.

13. What advice does the man give the woman?

A. Stopping using the elevator.

B. Taking the bus one stop earlier.

C. Going to a gym at regular times.

听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。

14. Where does the man notice the red things first?

A. On the woman’s legs.

B. On the woman’s face.

C. On the woman’s arms.

15. What might cause the red things?

A. A plant.

B. Some food.

C. Oily skin.

16. What will the woman probably do next?

A. Go to the drugstore.

B. Eat something different.

C. Receive hospital treatment.

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. Which fact of Sydney does the speaker mention?

A. It has the world’s biggest deep water harbor.

B. It has a population of less than three million.

C. It is a place of natural beauty with green parkland.

18. Which area can date back to the early nineteenth century?

A. The Rocks.

B. Houses in Paddington.

C. The Koala Bear Park.

19. What makes the Opera House famous?

A. Its size.

B. Its design.

C. Its performances.

20. What is the temperature difference between summer and winter in Sydney?

A. About 8℃.

B. About 12℃.

C. About 20℃.

第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

A

Simple facts about the British currency

The British currency has two units — the pound and the penny. 100 pennies make £1.

Currency paper notes are £5, £10, £20 and £50. The different notes are quite similar in size and appearance, so be careful! £50 notes are not common, and many shops will not accept them, because of the danger of false money.

Coins are £2, £1, 50p, 20p, 10p, 5p, 2p and 1p.

In Scotland, Scottish banks issue their own bank notes of various values. British and Scottish notes and coins are interchangeable. However, you might find some unwillingness in the South of England to accept Scottish notes even though areas near Scotland will happily accept them. We therefore recommend that you exchange or spend any Scottish currency before leaving Scotland .

In conversation and shops, people often do not say “pounds”. Something which costs £6.50 would usually be described as “six fifty”. For things which cost less than one pound, people may say “pence”, but often they say “pee”, meaning “p”. For instance, “That is ninety-nine pee”. The larger coins will often be called, for example, “a fifty pee”, or “a fifty pee piece”.

Best ways of obtaining British money

You can change cash and traveller’s cheques at British Banks, building societies(these are similar to banks), larger Post Offices, larger Travel Agents, some larger Tourist Information Centres, American Express, and Bureaux de Change.

Be careful, as some cost more than others! You will probably pay much more at Bureaux de Change at airports and in the centre of London.

Banks, building societies and travel agents will usually charge a fixed percentage fee, about 3%, with a minimum of fee of £2. 50. Or it might be 2%, with a minimum fee of £3. Some, such as the Halifax Building Society, may charge a £2 handing charge, plus 1% fee. It is worth looking around. Larger post offices charge only a 1% fee, minimum £2.50, so they can be a good place to go.

21. What notes should you avoid while exchanging for British money?

A. £5 notes.

B. £10 notes.

C. £20 notes.

D. £50 notes.

22. How much is “eight thirty” in purchase?

A. £83.

B. £8.30.

C. 83p.

D. 8.30p.

23. Where can you probably get the most value of your money when changing for British currency?

A. British Banks.

B. Building Societies.

C. Larger Travel Agents.

D. Larger Post Offices.

The word “inquiry”(or enquiry)comes from the Latin words “in”, or“inward”,and “quaere”, which is the verb “to question”. So inquiry is not just asking questions,it is questioning into something. It has the quality of getting into something, going deeper, so you can see what you haven’t been able to see before.

When you begin an inquiry, you are deliberately setting out to search for what you don’t know. You have to have the confidence to say that you might be able to figure it out for yourself. And in that process, you get a sense of real excitement and energy. That energy is both part of, and contributes to, what we often call “engagement”. But in order to use inquiry to answer your question, you have to become good at knowing what you don’t know. I would argue that that’s exactly the opposite of what happens in schools. Classrooms focus on what you do know (or are supposed to know)and leave you unprepared to deal with the things you don’t know.

In some ways, we are all surrounded by a bubble of the known. When you “know” something, you identify how your model of the world fits with and explains what you see. Living in the bubble of the known is comfortable and comforting. You see what you know, and you know what you see. But to do inquiry, you have to get good at always looking for the boundaries of your knowledge, and at the limitations and contradictions within what is known. That is what scientists do. They are always looking for the limits, the boundaries and the points at which their theories fail to explain the world. Scientists, basically, are always loo king for that “door” from the known to the unknown, where they can press forth(向前)and push and, in a sense, expand the bubble of the known. Inquiry is the action you take when you deliberately challenge the limits of your knowledge.

24. What is the passage mainly about?

A. What inquiry is all about.

B. The way to make an inquiry.

C. The importance of inquiry.

D. The effect of inquiry.

25. What does the author intend to tell about “inquiry” in Paragraph 1?

A. The word has existed for a long time.

B. The word means asking many questions.

C. The word didn’t come from the English language.

D. The word means exploring further into something.

26. What should you know well to do inquiry?

A. What you already know.

B. Wh at you don’t know.

C. Whether you are confident.

D. Whether you are excited.

27. What does the underlined word “where” refer to?

A. In the real world.

B. Within the bubble.

C. In the world of the unknown.

D. At the door to the unknown.

Concern for the environment plays a big part in British hotel bookings, with research showing one in five are more likely to stay somewhere if it uses renewable energy sources.

In a new survey half of travelers said that the sustainability and energy use of a hotel is important to them. And 19 percent said they would choose to stay in a recommended bed and breakfast(B&B)or a hotel that showed a willingness to look after the environment. Perhaps unsurprisingly, 50 percent said they would be willing to be an “eco-custo mer” if they got a 10-percent discount for adopting environmentally friendly behavior such as using one towel throughout their visit and using a limited supply of hot water. Almost a third of guests say that hotels should be judged on how sustainable they are.

The research was carried out by an energy company called E. ON, and 2,000 travelers were polled(做民意调查). Phil Gilbert, head of business energy solutions at E. ON, said, “Consumers are demanding more and more from their hotels. They want to stay in a hotel that uses renewable energy sources. It’s therefore more important than ever that hotels are in control of their energy use. Most hotels redecorate every 7 - 10 years, and this provides a significant opportunity to meet guest preferences as well as adapting to make energy savings. According to the Carbon Trust, some businesses have seen energy costs reduce by as much as 40 percent if energy efficiency opportunities are maximized during redecoration.”

In order to prove its point, E. ON mentioned the case of Pat and Anthony Greenwood, owners of luxury B&B Seaflowers, in South Devon. They adopted a number of renewable energy sources and carried out many energy efficiency measures to be sustainable. They said, “Our guests are impressed by the energy efficiency of our home and frequently comment on our policies of using locally sourced ingredients, our own eggs, fruit and home-made bread for breakfasts. We have achieved the highest level of greenness, and it gives us great pleasure to promote our business as sustainable and efficient.”

28. What can be inferred from the second paragraph?

A. All travelers want to be “eco-customers”.

B. Hotels will be judged on how sustainable they are in the future.

C. Many travelers tend to choose green hotels.

D. A hotel that looks after the environment is the best choice for travelers.

29. What’s not the intention of the hotel redecoration from the passage?

A. Saving energy costs.

B. Making energy savings.

C. Improving energy efficiency.

D. Changing luxury styles.

30. What is the attitude of the owners of B&B seaflowers to their work?

A. Unsatisfied.

B. Positive.

C. Indifferent.

D. Uncertain.

31. What is the best title for the passage?

A. Try to Be an Eco-Customer

B. Sustainable Hotels in Britain

C. Research into Renewable Energy Sources

D. Travelers to Britain Are Going Green

Can small, organic agriculture really feed the world? Won’t we need science to produce enough food as the world population is growing to 9 billion by 2050? The answer to both questions is YES—but that science may look different than you think.

We’ve been told that the only way we’ll be able to feed the growing population is through the science of GM crops and chemicals. But the latest scientific studies are saying just the opposite. In study after study, the message about agriculture is: To feed the world, we need to support sustainable(可持续的)agriculture on different local family farms that work with nature.

In 2008, an international study found that sustainable agriculture, not GM crops, shows more hope of ending hunger. The International Assessment of Agricultural Knowledge, Science, and Technology for Development (known as the IAASTD), calls for a change of the world’s food and farming systems.

The IAASTD reports that industrial agriculture has greatly destroyed the world’s soils and other natural resources, and now is causing water pollution, energy crisis, and air pollution. The report warns that expensive, short-term ways—including GM crops—are not likely to cut down long-term hunger, and could even make environment and social problems worse in many places.

A recent report by the UN Environment Program shows that food problems are becoming more serious and strongly supports sustainable agriculture on small family farms. It also shows that a worldwide change to organics can actually increase the world’s food production by as much as 50%—enough to feed a population of 9 billion people with the land we have now. GM crops, once popular, are now being questioned worldwide.

32. What is the best way to feed the growing population of the world?

A. In expensive, short-term ways.

B. By encouraging industrial agriculture.

C. By developing small, organic agriculture.

D. Through the science of GM crops and chemicals.

33. Which of the following can best interpret sustainable agriculture?

A. The science of GM crops.

B. Working on small family farms.

C. A fast way to increase the world’s food production.

D. An approach to agriculture without harming the environment.

34. What is suggested in the last paragraph?

A. There will be less food problems if we use big family farms.

B. There will be less food problems if the world supports GM food.

C. There will be less food problems if we increase a lot of farm land.

D. There will be less food problems if the world supports sustainable agriculture.

35. What might be talked about if there is one more paragraph?

A. The causes of food problems.

B. The disadvantages of GM crops.

C. The development of industrial agriculture.

D. The disadvantages of sustainable agriculture.

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

The summer I was ten, my mother decided to bring us to the world of art. My brother and I were not very excited when we realized what my mother meant. What she meant was not that we could take drawing classes or painting classes but that we would have to spend one afternoon a week with her at the Fine Arts Museum. That was not so bad; what really troubled me was that before each visit to the museum, she made us read about artists and painting styles. 36__ Anyway, who wants to spend the summer thinking about artists when you could be with your friends at the swimming pool?

First we had to read about ancient Egyptians and their strange way of painting faces and then go to look at them at the museum. 37 Later we had to learn about artists in the Middle Ages who painted people wearing strange long clothing. We had to look at pictures of fat babies with wings and curly hair and with no clothes on flying around the edges of paintings. 38 On our last visit to the museum, something happened when I saw a painting by a woman called Mary. 39 The colors were soft and gentle, and you could tell by the mother’s expression how happy she was just to be with the child. I could hardly take my eyes away from that painting! 40 It was really worth looking at so many paintings to find a painter who could interest me so much.

A. In it, a woman was reading to a child.

B. That felt almost as bad as being in school.

C. I had never seen a stranger painting than that one!

D. I wanted to see every painting Mary had ever made!

E. I was immediately attracted by the strange way of painting faces.

F. Staring at those pictures, I still couldn’t see what was so great about art.

G. Unusual styles of art always attracted my brother, but I was not interested.

第三部分语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

Ruth Henricks has served thousands of customers, but she will never forget one man who walked into her diner(小餐馆)30 years ago.

“He was very thin, looked kind of 41 , and he told me he was living with AIDS,” she recalled. 42 the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention(CDC), the United States was in the middle of an AIDS epidemic(流行)in 1989, when the reported number of cases 43__ 100,000, including nearly 60,000 deaths.

His name is Scott. He became a 44 at Henricks’ diner and she would ask him about his health. Some days he was too 45 to feed himself. He told Henricks the only time he ate was at her diner.

Then, after about a year and a half, Scott stopped 46 . Henricks tried to find him, to no __47 . She was 48 , but she realized she could help others like Scott. That was the 49__ of her non-profit organization, Special Delivery SanDiego, bringing home-cooked meals to people __50 with AIDS.

She gathered together 51 , many of whom were regular customers of her diner. They cooked meals at the diner and 52 lunch and dinner to 75 people a day.

By 1996, Henricks 53 her mission to help anyone living with a chronic(慢性的)illness including cancer and kidney disease. The organization purchased a space next to the diner so it could 54 more people in need.

Henricks said: “At first, we delivered meals to people living with AIDs. At that time, people were actually 55 very quickly. It was very 56 for all of us to watch these people just pass away. We would 57 put them on meal service, and a month later somebody would be calling, saying, ‘Well,they’ve passed away. ’ So,after a while, people were asking me, ‘How can you keep doing this and not get 58 ’”?

It’s bringing that love, that respect, that 59 to them in their last days. At least they don’t have to 60 about where the next meal’s coming from.

41. A. disappointed B. annoyed C. sick D. energetic

42. A. Compared with B. According to C. Owing to D. Judging from

43. A. increased B. added C. touched D. reached

44. A. client B. waiter C. regular D. cook

45. A. weak B. unlucky C. helpless D. busy

46. A. showing off B. showing up C. coming across D. coming out

47. A. effect B. work C. meaning D. difference

48. A. honest B. relieved C. calm D. heartbroken

49. A. factor B. idea C. start D. history

50. A. living B. trying C. working D. holding

51. A. customers B. volunteers C. workers D. colleagues

52. A. borrowed B. cooked C. contributed D. delivered

53. A. changed B. began C. expanded D. invented

54. A. discover B. feed C. check D. cure

55. A. calling B. disappearing C. leaving D. dying

56. A. shocking B. natural C. upsetting D. understandable

57. A. hardly B. partly C. simply D. safely

58. A. depressed B. annoyed C. infected D. excited

59. A. spirit B. dignity C. reality D. destiny

60. A. bother B. ask C. care D. worry

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Most rain forests lie close to the equator, Where the climate is often mild and there 61__ (be)long hours of sunshine. The warmth of the land heats the air above, causing it to rise and tiny drops of water 62 (fall)as rain. The rainfall can reach at least 98 inches a year. This wet, warm world with plenty of sunlight is perfect for plants to grow, so the trees grow fast with green leaves all the year round. The trees 63 (they)also have an effect on the climate. They gather water from the soil and pass it out into the air through their leaves. The wet air then forms clouds, __64 hang over the treetops like smoke. These clouds protect the forest 65 the daytime heat and night-time cold of nearby deserts, 66 (keep)temperatures fit for plant growth.

The rain forest is the ideal place for the growth of a wide 67 (vary)of trees. Most of them depend on animals to eat their fruits and spread their seeds. When the fruits 68 (eat), the seeds inside them go undamaged through 69 (animal)stomachs and are passed out in their droppings. 70 seeds lying on the forest floor then grow into new trees.

第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

Dear Dad and Mom,

I really didn’t think it’s a good idea to attend ext ra classes during the weekends. You believe that only high marks in the national exam can ensure the good college and that if I were in such classes I would cause much fewer trouble.

But I really doubt whether such classes will helpful, I think attend extra classes during the weekends will make me to rely on them. After being busy for my studies in the school for a whole week, I really need some times to do something I like. After which I will feel good enough for the next week. Besides we don’t have mo ney to burn, so don’t waste them.

How I wish you could agree with me.

第二节书面表达(满分25分)

一个英文网站面向中学生征稿。请你写一篇英文稿件,介绍”中秋节”及这个节日里的主要活动。内容包括:

1.传统的庆祝方式;

2.现今人们在这个节日中的一些活动。

注意:1.词数100左右;

2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。

The Mid-Autumn Festival

_______________________________________________________________________________

高二11月月考英语试题

高二11月月考英语试题 第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分) 第一节听下面5段对话,回答第1至5小题。(每段对话仅读一遍)1.What’s the time? A.About 4:30. B.About 5:00. C.About 5:30. 2.What are the two speakers probably doing? A.They are doing some shopping. B.They are watching a TV program. C.They are attending a concert. 3.When are they talking? A.In the morning. B.In the afternoon. C.In the evening. 4.What does the man want to drink? A.Tea. B.Coffee. C.Cold water. 5.How old is the man’s grandma? A.She’s 92. B.She’s 90. C.She’s 70. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听第6段材料,回答第6—7题。 6.What’s the time limit of Doris’ passport? A.Three years. B.Four years. C.Five years. 7.What’s the purpose of Doris’ going to the UK? A.To have a holiday. B.To get further education. C.To do business. 听第7段材料,回答第8—9题。 8.What will the man probably do? A.He will watch TV. B.He will fill in a form. C.He will wash his shirt. 9.Who will come to take the clothes and shoes? A.The woman speaker. B.The manager. C.The maid. 听第8段材料,回答第10—12题。 10.What can we learn from the conversation? A.The speakers will attend a job interview. B.The speakers have just graduated.

2019-2020学年高一英语11月月考试题 (考试时间:90分钟 试卷满分:120分)

2019-2020学年高一英语11月月考试题 (考试时间:90分钟试卷满分:120分) 测试范围:人教必修2 Unit 1~Unit 2。 第一部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。 A Bored? Lonely? Out of condition? Why not try the SPORTS CENTER? TENNIS Indoor and outdoor courts. Coaching from beginners to advanced. Children only. Mornings. SKIING Gentle slopes. 3 levels instructors at weekends and Fridays. Daytime practice. 8-year-old upwards. SWIMMING 2 pools, heated, Olympic length. Women: Tuesday and Thursday. Men: Monday, Wednesday and Friday. Children: Saturday.

GOLF 9 hole practice course. Professional Coaching. Lessons must be booked in advance in daytime. Evening practice. Minimum age — 9 years. GYMNASTICS Maximum age —18 years. Children aged 5-10: Mondays and Wednesdays, 4:00-6:00 p.m. 10—18 year olds: Friday evenings. AND MANY MORE Table Tennis, Snooker(台球), Darts(标枪), Café(all day), Bar (lunch time and evenings), Nursery (weekdays and weekends, not evenings). Centre open 10:00 a.m.—10:00 p.m. Daily. Interested? More details, call 800-1234-5678. 1.What is this advertisement mainly about? A.It shows us some ways to spend weekends. B.It shows us a lot of ways to spend our holidays. C.It shows the ways of saving our time. D.It shows us a place to relax ourselves. 2.Which of the following is TRUE according to this passage? A.People can play tennis day and night.

2020届高三各地10月和11月英语试卷精选汇编:短文改错专题

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