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陕西省西安市高新一中2017-2018学年高一上学期期中考试英语试题

陕西省西安市高新一中2017-2018学年高一上学期期中考试英语试题
陕西省西安市高新一中2017-2018学年高一上学期期中考试英语试题

陕西省西安市高新一中2017-2018学年高一上学期期中考试

英语试题

第Ⅰ卷

第一部分听力(共两节,满分20分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What will the man do this afternoon?

A. Go to the park.

B. Go to see Lisa.

C. Go to the beach.

2. Which sport does the woman like the best?

A. Volleyball.

B. Baseball

C. Football

3. Where does the conversation probably take place?

A. At home.

B. At a restaurant

C. At a supermarket.

4. What does the man's brother look like?

A. He has dark hair.

B. He is quite big

C. He is tall.

5. What does Anna want to do ?

A. Find a room.

B. Move to California

C. Make friends with Jane.

第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所费的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6至7题。

6. What is the man complaining about?

A. The food.

B. The service.

C. Drinks.

7. Which of the following does the man not need to pay for?

A. Soup.

B. Dessert.

C. Drinks.

听第7段材料,回答第8至9题。

8. How much should the woman pay?

A. 45 cents.

B. 30 cents.

C. Drinks.

9. Which bus will the woman probably take after taking this one?

A. No.6.

B. No.10.

C. No.16

听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。

10. Who can play the guitar?

A. Sam.

B. Helen.

C. Nick.

11. When will the man meet Nick?

A. On Wednesday.

B. On Thursday.

C. On Friday.

12. What does the woman remmd the man to bring?

A. A sweater.

B. Some food.

C. Some CDs.

听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。

13. When did the man leave home yesterday?

A. At 8:30 am.

B. At 9:00 am.

C. At 9:30 am.

14. Why was the man late?

A. He left home late.

B. His bus broke down.

C. He had an accident.

15. What are the speakers talking about?

A. An accident

B. An exam.

C. A competition

16. What do we know about Tim?

A. He is the man's best friend.

B. He took an exam yesterday.

C. He won first place.

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. What's the date today?

A. July 4.

B. July 5.

C. July 6.

18. What will the tourists visit first after they arrive in Chongqing?

A. A ship

B. A mountain.

C. A zoo.

19. What will the visitors do on July 8?

A. GO to the Qutang Gorge.

B. Attend a welcoming party.

C. Visit the Three Gorges Dam.

20. How long does the tour last?

A. Six days.

B. Three days.

C. Four days.

第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节:(共15小题:每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最贱选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A

In 1978, I was 18 and was working as a nurse in a small town about 270 km away from Sydney, Australia I was looking forward to having five fays off form duty. Unfortunately, the only one train a day back to my home in Sydney had already left. So I thought I'd hitch a ride(搭便车).

I waited by the side of the highway for three hours but no one stopped for me. Finally, a man walked over and introduced himself as Gordon. He said that although he couldn't give me a lift, I should come back to his house for lunch. He noticed me standing for hours in the November heat and thought I must be hungry. I was doubtful as a young girl but he assured (使…放心)me I safe,he also offered to help me find a lift home afterwards. When we arrived at his house,he made us sandwiches. After lunch,he helped me find a lift home.

Twenty-five years later, in 2003, while I was driving to a nearby town one day, I saw an elderly man standing in the glaring heat, trying to hitch a ride. I thought it was another chance to repay someone for the favor Td been given decades earlier. I pulled over and picked him up. I made him comfortable on the back seat and offered him some water.

After a few moments of small talk,the man said to me,"You haven’t changed a bit, even your red hair is still the same." I couldn't remember where Td met him. He then told me he was the man who had given me lunch and helped me find a lift all those years ago. It was Gordon.

21. The author had to hitch a ride one day in 1978 because .

A. her work delayed her trip to Sydney

B. she was going home for her holidays

C. the town was far away from Sydney

D. she missed the only train back home

22. The reason why the author offered a lift to the elderly man was that .

A. she realized he was Gordon

B. she had known hiip for decades

C. she was going to the nearby town

D. she wanted to repay the favor she once got

23. What does the author want to tell the readers through the story?

A. Giving sometimes produces nice results.

B. Those who giv7e rides will be paid.

C. Good manners bring about happiness.

D. People should offer free rides to others. '

B

Minutes after the last movie ended yesterday at the Plaza Theater. employees were busy sweeping up popcorns and gathering coke cups. It was a scene that had been repeated many times in the theater's 75-year history. This time, however, the cleanup was a little different. As one group of workers earned out the rubbish, another group began removing seats and other theater equipment in preparation for the building’s end.

The film classic The Lust Picture Show was the last movie shown in the old theater. Though the movie is 30 years old, most of the 250 seats were filled with teary-eyed audience wanting to say good-be to the old building. Theater owner Ed Bradford said he chose the movie because it seemed appropriate The movie is set in a small town where the only movie theater is preparing to close down.

Bradford said that large modern theaters in the city made it impossible for the Plaza to compete. He added that the theater's location(位置) was also a reason. "this used to be the center of town." he said. "Now the area is mostly office buildings and warehouses."

Last week some city officials suggested the city might be interested in turning the old theater into a museum and public meeting place. However, these plans were abandoned because of financial problems. Bradford sold the building and to a local development firm, which plans to build a shopping complex on the land where the theater is located.

The theater audience said good-by as Bradford locked the doors for the last time. After 75 years the Plaza Theater has shown its last movie. It will be missed.

24. In what way was yesterday's cleanup at the Plaza special?

A. it made room for new equipment

B. it signaled the closedown of the heater.

C. It was done with the help of the audience.

D. It marked the 75th anniversary of the theater.

25. Why was The Last Picture Show put on?

A. It was an all-time classic.

B. It was about the history of the town.

C. The audience requested it.

D. The theater owner found it suitable.

26. What will probably happen to the building?

A. It will be repaired.

B. It will be tuned into a museum.

C. Il will be knocked down.

D. It will be sold to the city government.

27. What can we infer about the audience?

A. They are disappointed with Bradford.

B. They are sad to part with the old theater.

C. They are supportive of the city officials.

D. They are eager to have a shopping center.

C

Most people shake hands and make eye contact when they meet people for the first time. Among very good friends, a woman may give another woman a little hug, and a man may kiss a woman quickly on the cheek. Males don t hug one another, which, however, is changing. Men usually shake hands with the right hand. Sometimes they use the left hand to either cover the handshake or lightly hold the other person's arm. This shows greater warmth and friendship. Most people wave hello or good-bye by extending the palm(手掌)facing outward, and twisting the hand at the wrist. Another way is to raise the arm, palm outward, and move the whole arm and hand back and forth. This is important to know because in many other countries, the same movements mean "no"

When people are waiting in a public place, such as the post office, they usually form lines. Some people get angry and complain if someone pushes their way into a line or jumps ahead of other people. Moreover, many women like men to open doors for them. They also like men to give up their seats on public transportation. However, some women do not like this type of behavior. They feel that men and women should be treated in the same way.

In the United States, it's important to make direct eye contact in business and social situations. If you don't make eye contact, people will probably think that you are bored or not interested. If there is silence in these situations, people usually try to make conservation. Periods of silence

make many people uncomfortable. People in the United States usually stand about one arm's length away from each other while talking or standing together. This space is called "the comfort zone".

In the United States, mothers sometimes show that they are angry with children by shaking an index finger(食指) at them. People may show that they like children by patting them on the head.

28. It can be inferred from Paragraph 1 that in the United States .

A. males begin to hug each other now

B. a man usually kisses a woman for greeting

C. people only use right hands to shake hands

D. people wave good-bye as people in many other countries do

29. Some women don't like to be offered a seat by men because .

A. they think sitting is harmful for health

B. they prefer to stand rather than sit

C. they like to be treated equally

D. they don't need men's favor

30. The third paragraph is mainly about .

A. body language in public places

B. impolite body language

C. the comfort zone

D. body language in business and social life

31. In the United States, a mother sometimes shakes an index finger at her kids to show .

A. boredom

B. anger

C. love

D. satisfaction

D

If you see a group of people dancing and singing on the street or in the railway station, you don’t need to feel surprised They are a flash mob (快闪族),which is a group of people who come together suddenly in a public place, do something unusual for a brief period of time, and then quickly break up. I hey are usually organized with the help of the Internet or other digital communication network. At a predetermined time,they gather and perform some distractions (消

遣)such as waving their hands and exchanging books, Then, they quickly break up before the police can arrive. Using mobile phones, the flash mob can change its location if the first one has been replaced for any reason.

Bill Lasik, senior editor of Harper's Magazine, organized the first flash mob in Manhattan in May 2003 but the first successful flash mob came together on June 3, 2003 - after the first attempt was foiled at Macy's department store. Lasik claimed that the activity was designed to make fun of hipsters (起时髦的人), and call attention to the cultural atmosphere.

Flash mob gatherings can sometimes shock people. Such an activity might seem amusing and untrue, but is also might frighten people who are not aware of what is taking place. Undoubtedly, flash mobs can serve as good political tools in any direction. They also have great economic potential, such as using flash mobs to advertise a product.

The flash mob is now becoming more and more popular. People use it to do many things. For example, in 2009, Michael Jackson's fans took part in a flash mob to remember him Hundreds of his fans gathered singing and dancing Michael's famous song "Beat It" together. Flash mobs give people from all walks of life an opportunity to come together to create memory.

32. The undefined word "foiled in Paragraph 2 can be replaced by " ".

A. forgotten

B. prevented

C. announced

D. held

33. What can you learn about the flash mob from the passage?

A. The flash mob can be made use of in many fields just for fun,

B. Once the place for the activity is determined , it can't be changed

C. The flash mob usually breaks up quickly for lacking enough time

D. It gives people the chance to come together to do something unusual.

34. The main purpose of the passage is .

A. to entertain

B. to encourage

C. doubtful

D. to persuade

35. The writer's attitude towards the flash mob is .

A. negative

B. favorable

C. doubtful

D. objective

第二节:(共5小题:每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项.

Everyone Can Be Great; You Just Need To Know How

Whether you want to be a great student, a brilliant researcher, an excellent parent or a highly successful businessman, you will have the same mindset (思维方式), You have a goal, your values and ethics(道德) are rock solid, you persevere (坚持),and you keep victory in sight. Sounds simple, right? Well, not really._36_ .

set big goals.

If you have minor goals or objectives, you will never be great. _37_ Big goals drive you farther. Write the goals down. To achieve you also need to know your strengths and weaknesses. Self-criticism is also helpful to achieve your targets.

Remember your values.

_38_ You will not cheat in exams and you will not invest in shady(可疑的) stocks Honesty and fair, ethical business practices will stand the test of time and are a vital part in achieving greatness.

Learn to handle difficulties.

Read any book you want on all the great success stories of our times from Albert Einstein, Nelson Mandela, Steve Jobs, to Bill Gates. They all had one thing in common _39_ _40_

In seeking greatness, many people neglect to look afer the emotional, spiritual, and wellness aspects of their lives on this planet. Work takes over 95% of their lives. But with small changes, you can transform the quality of your relationships and regain work-life balance.

A. Manage your work-life balance.

B. Enjoy life and forget about work.

C. They had to face troubles and failures, but they did not quit

D. Take every chance you get to learn from others and build a network.

E. Here are some things you need to concentrate on to make sure you know how to be great.

F. Above all, be aware that principles are always the foundations(基础) of being great.

G. Keep your major aims always in your mind and you will know where you are going.

第三部分语言知识运用(共三节,满分40分)

第一节完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

After a long day at school, I walked home with my heavy schoolbag. Sleepy and _41_, I threw my things on the couch and hurriedly took something from the _42_ to eat. I passed by the living room and wished I could watch TV, but I knew my _43_ would take me the whole night. I took my schoolbag and went _44_ to my room. I tried to understand chemistry and _45_ sleepiness at the same time I tried to keep my eyes _46_ and I wanted something to cheer me up.

Later, I _47_ the sound of the front door opening. And 1 waited for it—the sound of my mom singing. Though she sang off-key (跑调),it made me _48_ that she was here. I ran down to _49_ her. We hugged each other and talked for a while. I like it when my mom was happy. Her _50_ seemed to flow down to me and I got the power to _51_ the stress (压力)again.

Sometimes, I wonder _52_ my mom can still be positive after coming back from work. Every weekday,she wakes up _53_ in the morning to go to work and spends all hour on the bus before getting downtown. At a _54_ factory, she works standing for the whole day and draws patterns for clothes over and over. After work,my mom often gets stuck (卡在)in _55_ for two hours on her way back home. When I _56_ my school life with her work life, I should not be the one to complain. At least I have some interesting things to do at school,_57_ if my mom makes one mistake at work, she will lose her job. I appreciate that my mom has a positive attitude and lives her life with a joyful heart, _58_ encourages me to do my work well, _59_ there may be difficulties. Seeing her happy makes feel _60_, too.

41. A. heavy B. busy C. hungry D. unlucky

42. A. classroom B. kitchen C. bedroom D. apartment

43. A. dream B. supper C. homework D. experience

44. A. downstairs B. outdoors C. upstairs D. indoors

45. A. break off B. put off C. get off D. fight off

46. A. closed B. safe C. open D. loose

47. A. felt B. found C. made D. heard

48. A. angry B. disappointed C. excited D. upset

49. A. tell B. greet C. notice D. help

50. A. need B. idea C. tip D. energy

51. A. face B. change C. get D. suffer

52. A. how B. what C. why D. whether

53. A. early B. soon C. fast D. late

54. A. furniture B. shoe C. car D. clothing

55. A. work B. traffic C. duty D. task

56. A. fill B. swap C. connect D. compare

57. A. but B. so C. or D. and

58. A. which B. that C. the one D. where

59. A. unless B. though C. as D. as if

60. A. good B. unhappy C. successful D. important

第Ⅱ卷

第三部分语言知识运用

第二节语法填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

阅读下面对话,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。

In a desert the weather is often dry and hot. Some people think desert is a place_61_ there is nothing but sand. That is true sometimes,_62_ some deserts have many kinds of plants and animals living in them. These plants and animals and exist for long periods of time _63_rain.

Some animals in the desert get all the water they need by _64_(eat) the plants _65_ have water in them People who have been _66_(lose)in the desert have died because they had no water _67_(drink). Some of these people would not have died if they had known how to survive. People who know how so survive in such _68_ dry place often know how to get water from the _69_(leaf)of plants.

A person may enjoy living in the desert because he _70_(think) it is a beautiful place, but another person may think the same place is not pretty at all.

第三节:单词拼写(每小题1分,共10分)

71. Two_______(系列) of new textbooks will be tried by the two provinces in the following three years.

72. He has _____(遭受) poverty and worked bitterly hard.

73. I am very _____(感激的) to you for having taken so much trouble.

74. I should certainly visit him _____(频繁地)to cheer him up.

75. During the storm flashes of ______(闪电) appeared in the sky.

76. There was no wind. The smoke rose _____(笔直地)upward.

77. He offered to drive us to St. Joseph, but we ____(更喜欢) to walk.

78. Laura was trying to ______(说服)him to sign some protest.

79. ______(判断)from what you say, he ought to succeed.

80. We sent Mary our ______(祝贺)when she passed her examination.

第四部分:写作(共两节,满分20分)

第一节:短文改错(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加:在缺词处加一个漏子符号(Λ)并在其下面写出该加的词

删除:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不记分。

The summer holiday is coming. My classmates and I are talking about how to do during the holiday. We can chose between staying at home and take a trip. IF we stay at home. it is comfortable but there is no need to spend money. But in that case, we will learn little about world. If we go on a trip abroad, we can broaden you view and gain knowledge what we cannot get from books. Some classmates suggest we can go to places of interest nearby. I thought that it is a good idea. It does not cost many. yet we can still learn a lot.

第二节; 书面表达(满分10分)

假如你是李华,最近收到你的美国朋友Jenny的来信。她在信中说,由于进入高中,还不能适应新环境,不知道如何结交新朋友,因而情绪低落。请你给她回信,内容如下:

1.向Jenny表示问候和安慰;

2.提出以下建议:

(1)放学后邀请同学一起参加活动,这有助于你们互相更好地了解;

(2)你的同学遇到麻烦时,你去帮助他们;

(3)你遇到困难时向同学求助。

注意:1.词数100左右;

2.可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;

3.信的开头和结尾已为你写好,不计入总词数。

Dear Jenny,

I am really sorry to hear that______________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

Yours

Li Hua

【参考答案】

一、听力:

1-10 C B B C A , B C A B A

11-20 B A A B C , C B C A C

二、阅读:

21-30 D D A B D , C B A C D

31-35 B B D C B

七选五: E G F C A

三、完形:

41-60 C B C C D, C D C B D, A C A D B, D A A B A 四、语法填空:

61-70 where, but, without, eating, that/which,

lost, to drink, a , leaves, thinks.

五、单词拼写:

71-80 series, suffered, grateful, frequenthy, lightning

straight, preferred, persuade, Judging, congratulations

六、改错:

how what, chose choose, taking, but and, Λthe world

you our, what that, can/can should, thought think, many much.

七、作文:省略

安徽省合肥市合肥一中、合肥六中2020学年高一英语下学期期中联考试题

安徽省合肥市合肥一中、合肥六中2020学年高一英语下学期期中 联考试题 时长:120分钟分值:150分 第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分) 第一节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1 .What will Dorothy do on the weekend? A.Go out with her friend. B. Work on her paper. C. Make some plans. 2. What was the normal price of the T-shirt? A.$15. B.$30. C.$50. 3. What has the woman decided to do on Sunday afternoon? A. To attend a wedding. B. To visit an exhibition. C. To meet a friend. 4. When does the bank close on Saturday? A. At 1:00 p.m. B. At 3:00 p.m. C. At 4:00 p.m. 5. Where are the speakers? A. In a store. B. In a classroom C. At a hotel. 第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

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